I would think the 2nd approach, too. Each draw alters the prob of success
for the next draw a significant enough amount.
Btw-in general would this be a violation of independence?
_____
From: gov2001-l-bounces at
lists.fas.harvard.edu
[mailto:gov2001-l-bounces at
lists.fas.harvard.edu] On Behalf Of John-Paul
Ferguson
Sent: Saturday, February 14, 2009 12:17 PM
To: gov2001-l at
lists.fas.harvard.edu
Subject: [gov2001-l] Clarification on pset 2, question 2
Hi all,
The wording on questions like this always confuses me. We are asked, "If a
researcher interviews 5 separate individuals [out of the 25 in the village]
randomly selected with equal probability, what is the probability that she
will not talk to a single supporter of the government?"
I seems like you could treat this two ways:
1. What is the probability of getting 0 successes in 5 draws from a
population of arbitrary size but fixed probability of success? If you did it
this way, you'd use the binomial distribution with n = 5, k = 0 and pi =
6/25.
2. What is the probability of getting 5 sequential failures in 5 draws from
a population of 25 where there are 6 potential "successes"? If you did it
this way, you'd use the hypergeometric distribution with k = 0, N = 25, m =
6 and n = 5.
The second approach feels more natural, but is it?
John-Paul