the writing in this could be clearer, altho i certainly get the point
which does come through.
what is not so clear is if the original authors are ASSUMING that there
is no interaction with income, and you ESTIMATE it and find that their
assumption is incorrect. Or do they estimate the interaction but you find
different results due to your methods? i'd just clarify precisely what
you're claiming.
and for everyone, precision (and organization) is quite important.
authors (being human) will be very sensitive to being criticized and so
you want to pare down your criticism to ONLY what you can defend. even a
slight misworded comment will be taken the wrong way once it seems like
you're the enemy! so be really precise and you'll be able to protect your
flank better.
Gary
On Wed, 2 May 2007, Ana AguilarRivera wrote:
Here is our abstract. Sorry for the delay. We
appreciate any feedback.
How the expansion of health insurance changes self-medication practice for the elderly?
The case of Mexico
How much self-medication can be reduced by extending health insurance? Who will benefit
more from having health insurance? Self-medication is a common response to illness in many
countries, especially among uninsured and those under poverty and Mexico is no exception.
Pag?n et al, (2001) found that health insurance coverage as well as higher socio-economic
status reduce self-medication in the elderly population in Mexico; however their results
show no interaction effect between insurance coverage and income level. To estimate the
potential effect of the current health reform aiming to extend health insurance primarily
for poor households, we extend the analysis to estimate this interaction by using
imputation and propensity score matching. Our results indicate that health insurance has a
differential effect on reducing self-medication by income level ranging from 10% for the
poorest quintile to 5.0% for the richest quintile. This indicates that the poor elderly
may benefit t
he most of a health insurance extension.
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