23 Dec
2008
23 Dec
'08
7:31 p.m.
hello,
a very basic question: why is it that the standard errors (calculated with
misum) over the 10 imputed datasets with Amelia II are much smaller than the
ones from my original dataset (even for variables that did not have so many
missing obs. or at all in the latter)? Am I doing sth. wrong with the
imputation process?
thanks so much
Helen
23 Dec
23 Dec
7:41 p.m.
Helen,
"misum" gives you the multiple imputation estimate of the mean and the
standard error of this estimate. It does not give you the standard
deviation of the variable. I suspect you may be comparing these two
things and they are not the same thing. Of course, if upon further
investigation you see a problem, let me know.
Thanks,
Ken
Helen Brown wrote:
hello,
a very basic question: why is it that the standard errors (calculated
with misum) over the 10 imputed datasets with Amelia II are much
smaller than the ones from my original dataset (even for variables
that did not have so many missing obs. or at all in the latter)? Am I
doing sth. wrong with the imputation process?
thanks so much
Helen
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